Chapter 13 — Bodie, Kane & Marcus
Monmouth University
Intrinsic value vs. market price, required return via CAPM
Constant-growth DDM, growth estimation, PVGO
Life cycles, two-stage DDM, P/E ratio analysis
FCFF, FCFE, firm valuation
Core idea: The search for mispriced securities (intrinsic value ≠ market price) is what maintains a nearly efficient market.
Intrinsic value, market price, and the required return
Your assessment of the stock's true worth — the PV of all expected future cash payments to the investor.
The consensus value set by all market participants — where supply meets demand.
If IV > MV → stock is underpriced → buy.
If IV < MV → stock is overpriced → sell or short.
ABC stock: Expected dividend = $4/share, current price P₀ = $48, expected year-end price P₁ = $52. Beta = 1.2, rf = 6%, E(rM) = 11%.
E(r) = (D₁ + P₁ − P₀) / P₀ = ?
k = rf + β × [E(rM) − rf] = ?
Valuing stocks from their cash flows to shareholders
If dividends grow at a constant rate g forever:
Dividend just paid: $3/share, g = 8%, k = 14%.
where b = plowback (retention) ratio = 1 − payout ratio
ROE = 12%, payout ratio = 60%.
b = 1 − 0.60 = 0.40
g = 12% × 0.40 = 4.8%
The more a firm retains and reinvests at a high ROE, the faster earnings and dividends grow.
But growth is only valuable if ROE > k! Otherwise the firm destroys value by reinvesting.
Key insight: Growth for its own sake isn't valuable. Growth enhances value only when projects earn returns above the cost of capital (ROE > k).
Stock price = No-growth value + Value of growth opportunities
If the firm pays out all earnings as dividends with zero reinvestment, this is the stock's value.
The extra value the market assigns for reinvesting earnings in profitable projects.
If PVGO < 0 → firm should stop reinvesting!
Sensitivity: A small change in g produces a huge change in price. This is the DDM's biggest weakness — it's very sensitive to growth assumptions.
Retention ratio b = 60%, ROE = 10%, k = 15%, D₁ = $2/share, E₁ = $5/share.
Step 1: g = ROE × b = ?
Step 2: V₀ = D₁/(k−g) = ?
Step 3: PVGO = V₀ − E₁/k = ?
When constant growth doesn't cut it
Firms go through life cycle stages with different growth rates:
Rapid growth, low payout, ample reinvestment opportunities. Competitors haven't entered yet.
Growth slows, payout rises, fewer profitable projects. Competitors in the market.
From the DDM: V₀ = D₁/(k−g) = E₁(1−b)/(k−g)
P/E is higher when:
But only if ROE > k! Otherwise, higher plowback reduces P/E.
"If the P/E ratio is less than the growth rate, you may have found yourself a bargain." — Peter Lynch
The PEG ratio = P/E ÷ g. PEG < 1 may signal undervaluation.
P/E pitfalls: Accounting earnings ≠ economic earnings. Historical cost, earnings management, business cycle effects, and inflation all distort P/E comparisons.
Cash flow available after reinvestment
EBIT = $100M, Depreciation = $20M, Tax rate = 35%, CapEx + ΔWC = $10M.
Discount FCFF at the WACC:
Equity value = Firm value − Debt
FCFF = $205M, Interest = $22M, T = 35%, Net debt increase = $25M.
Discount FCFE at the cost of equity:
If FCFE grows at g = 2%, ke = 11%:
Expected earnings E₁ = $3/share. Reinvestment rate b = 25%, ROE = 20%, k = 11%.
Step 1: g = ROE × b = ?
Step 2: D₁ = E₁ × (1−b) = ?
Step 3: V₀ = D₁/(k−g) = ?
Eagle Brand: E₁ = $1.25, k = 12%, g = 5%, b = 40%. By how much does ROE exceed k?
Hint: g = ROE × b → ROE = g/b
Pricing by comparison
Compare a firm's valuation ratios to industry peers:
| Ratio | Formula | Best For |
|---|---|---|
| P/E Ratio | Price / Earnings per share | Profitable, mature firms |
| P/B Ratio | Price / Book value per share | Asset-heavy firms (banks, REITs) |
| P/S Ratio | Price / Sales per share | Startups with no earnings yet |
| P/CF Ratio | Price / Cash flow per share | When earnings are distorted by accounting |
Logic: If similar firms trade at 15× earnings and your firm earns $3/share, it should be worth ~$45/share.
Limitation: "Similar" firms may not be truly comparable. Industry averages mask wide variation in growth, risk, and margins.
The "floor" — break up the firm, sell assets, repay debt, distribute remainder.
If Market Value < Liquidation Value → potential arbitrage opportunity (buy, break up, profit).
q > 1 → market values the firm's assets above their replacement cost (growth premium).
q < 1 → market values the firm below replacement cost (potential undervaluation or poor management).
| Model | Inputs | Strengths | Weaknesses |
|---|---|---|---|
| DDM | Dividends, g, k | Theoretically sound | Very sensitive to g; useless for non-dividend firms |
| FCFF/FCFE | Cash flows, WACC/k | Works for non-dividend firms | Forecasting cash flows is hard |
| P/E Comparables | Peer ratios | Simple, market-based | "Similar" firms may differ significantly |
| P/B, P/S | Book value, sales | Useful for special cases | Historical cost; ignores growth |
Best practice: Use multiple valuation methods and triangulate. If they converge, you have more confidence. If they diverge, investigate why.
DCF sensitivity warning: Small changes in growth rate, discount rate, or terminal value assumptions can produce wildly different valuations. Always perform sensitivity analysis.
a) What is the dividend D₁?
b) What is the growth rate g?
c) What is the stock price V₀?
d) What is the P/E ratio?
| EBIT | $80 million |
| Depreciation | $15 million |
| Tax rate | 30% |
| CapEx + ΔWC | $12 million |
What is FCFF?
FCFF = EBIT(1−T) + Dep − CapEx − ΔWC
If FCFF grows at 3% and WACC = 10%, what is the firm value?
Equity valuation is as much art as science — the models provide structure, but the real skill is in the assumptions.